Dr. Couch, some say that John 10:14-16 shows that the church is now part of Israel. Is this so?
ANSWER: Of course not. And, those who take such a view have not read the passage carefully. In the context, Christ is calling Himself the "good shepherd" (v. 14). He is taking on the description of God that is found in Ezekiel 34. There, the heavenly Father calls Himself the Shepherd and Israel His sheep. He reminds them that they are being scattered but that He will someday bring them back to their Promised Land (v. 13).
In the John 10 passage, the Lord takes on that same designation, the Good Shepherd. He then says "I have other sheep, which are not of this (sheep) fold; I must bring them also, and they shall (in the future) hear My voice; and they shall (in the future) become one flock with one Shepherd (which would be Christ)" (v. 16).
Christ is the Shepherd to all believers, whether to the OT Jews or for the church. But note, the "other sheep" are not of the same (sheep) fold, that is the other sheep fold which is Israel, though there is a common relationship that OT saints and/or NT saints have with Him: He is the Shepherd for both! This does not mean that the church has become part of the Jewish Kingdom or of the nation of Israel.
All people who are redeemed are redeemed by the death of Christ. His death goes back to the saving of the OT saints, and it goes forward to saving the NT saints; but there are two different sheep folds!
Study by context, context, and, keep the lines straight when interpreting the Bible!
Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch